Current Affairs

Q.1In a concrete canal the approximate permissible velocity of water should not exceed

(D)
Q.2A current meter measures the velocity of flow, if it is held

(C)
Q.3Garnett's diagrams are used for graphical solution of design equations of a canal by

(C)
Q.4 Which one of the following statements is correct?

(D)
Q.5canal passes over the drainage and H.F.L. of the drainage is above the bottom of the canal trough

(B)
Q.6__are the devices that extract silt from the canal water when silt water entering into the off-taking channel.

(A)
Q.7For diversion of flood water of rivers, the type of canal constructed, is

(B)
Q.8Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.9A counter berm is

(B)
Q.10Pick up the correct sequence of the part of a canal system from the following

(B)
Q.11Which one is the most efficient in irrigation system:

(C)
Q.12Which of the following is sub surface irrigation system:

(C)
Q.13 For cereal crops the most commonly adopted method of irrigation, is

(C)
Q.14 Process of meandering is due to

(D)
Q.15. To hold hydraulic jumps, baffle walls are provided in

(C)
Q.16The most suitable section of a lined canal, is

(D)
Q.17in Irrigation SCARP stands for :

(A)
Q.18Leaching is the process of

(A)
Q.19The primary man made cause of salinity is

(B)
Q.20The system of drainage adopted when main source is from hilly area and there is no lateral drains provided:

(D)
Q.21Which system of drainage is laid when main land is in depression:

(C)
Q.22When land is practically level, which drainage system is used:

(B)
Q.23Types of layout of tile drainage are:

(A)
Q.24When tile drains are situated below less permeable strata then they are surrounded by graded gravels called :

(C)
Q.25which of the following are causes of water logging :

(D)
Q.26As per WAPDA’s criterion, the land having depth to water table is less than ___ is classified as water logged area

(B)
Q.27 we can avoid water logging by :

(D)
Q.28 A land is said to be water-logged if its soil pores within

(C)
Q.29 A river is said to be of

(D)
Q.30If water table is comparatively high, the irrigation canal becomes useless, due to

(D)
Q.31If straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of radius R, make an angle θ with horizontal, the area of its cross-section, is

(D)
Q.32 If the straight sides of a triangular section of a lined canal with circular bottom of radius D, make an angle θ with horizontal, the hydraulic mean depth is

(B)
Q.33Modular range is :

(C)
Q.34Modular Limits is :

(B)
Q.35Minimum modular head is defined as :

(A)
Q.36Relation of Sensitivity "s" and Flexibility "f" is

(A)
Q.37The ratio of the head recovered to the input head of the water flowing through the outlet is called

(C)
Q.38The ratio of rate of change of discharge of an outlet to the rate of change of water depth in the parent/ distributary is called

(B)
Q.39The ration Rate of change of discharge in outlet to that of parent canal is called

(A)
Q.40Orifice type outlet is an

(A)
Q.41Open flume type outlet is

(A)
Q.42Which one is type of Modular outlet:

(A)
Q.43Which one is Semi Modular type outlet:

(B)
Q.44Non-Modular Outlets are dependent on

(C)
Q.45In Semi Modular (Flexible ) Outlet flow in outlet is dependent on ___ of Parent canal and not the __ in outlet

(A)
Q.46Modular outlet is called

(A)
Q.47An outlet should be

(D)
Q.48Outlet is called __ in local language.

(A)
Q.49a silting river is called

(B)
Q.50A river training work is generally required when the river is

(A)
Q.51in a hydraulic jump the depth before and after the jump are called :

(B)
Q.52If q is the discharge per unit width of a channel and D1 D2 are the depths of water before and after hydraulic jump, the following relationship is true

(A)
Q.53for impervious floor of a sarda fall, a minimum thickness of ___is provided for the floor to the u/s of the crest

(A)
Q.54 __ upstream curtain wall is provided, having a depth equal to __water depth

(A)
Q.55Brick pitching in a length equal to upstream water depth may be laid on the u/s bed, sloping towards the crest at a slope of

(C)
Q.56For trapezoidal fall (discharge greater than 14 m 3 / the U/S wings are kept segmental with radius equal to

(A)
Q.57The d/s wings are kept vertical for a length of ___from the Crest and may then be gradually warped They should be taken up to end of pakka floor.

(A)
Q.58The side pitching is curtailed at an angle of __from the end pitching in plan

(A)
Q.59The pitching may be provided between two or three curtain walls The curtain wall may be ___and depth equal to ___water depth or

(A)
Q.60in Vertical drop fall, The length of d/s pitching is:

(B)
Q.61in Sarda type fall of trapezoidal crest discharge is given by

(B)
Q.62in Sarda type fall of rectangular crest discharge is given by

(A)
Q.63For discharges greater than 15 m3/sec and fall more than 1.5 meter which fall is better:

(C)
Q.64for discharges upto 15 cusecs m3/sec and fall upto 1.5 meters which type of fall is most suitable

(A)
Q.65Which of the following is not a roughness device:

(D)
Q.66The ___fall is not suitable as a meter due to the formation of partial vacuum under the nappe

(A)
Q.67Limitation of Lacey's theory are ;

(D)
Q.68in Lacey's formula V = 1.1547 √fR f is friction factor and is given by:

(A)
Q.69in Lacey's formula V = 1.1547 √fR f is friction factor and it has value of __ for Upper Bari Doab Cannals:

(A)
Q.70 Flow Resistance Equations in Lacey's theory are

(C)
Q.71True regime is achieved when:

(D)
Q.72When a channel is newly formed which regime is said to be in the cannal:

(A)
Q.73If the continuous action of the current eventually overcomes the resistance of the sides and setup a condition where the channel adjusts its perimeter, depth and slope according to discharge, silt load, and silt grade, then____ conditions are said to be achieved

(B)
Q.74A channel is in the____ when the bed slope gets affected due to silting and scouring

(A)
Q.75Lacey's regime theory gives:

(D)
Q.76Side slope of alluvial canals is

(A)
Q.77According to Kennedy's theory, Maximum allowable velocity for alluvial canals is

(B)
Q.78In kennedy's theory for canal design :

(C)
Q.79According to Kennedy's Silt theory a regime channel is

(D)
Q.80which of the following are the methods for designing a canal?

(D)
Q.81usual range of free board from small distributary to main canal is:

(B)
Q.82free board of 1.5 feet is valid for discharge up to :

(A)
Q.83Formula for free board of a canal is:

(A)
Q.84For a given discharge in a channel, Blench curves give the relationship between the loss of head (HL) and

(B)
Q.85When the soil came from cutting totally fill the filling portion that depth of cutting area is called :

(A)
Q.86During construction period of a canal, some extra land is required for storage of materials and machineries nearer the site of construction is called :

(B)
Q.87The borrow pits are usually located art a distance of __ away from outer toe of the bank.

(B)
Q.88the horizontal distance between toe of bank and edge of cutting is called:

(B)
Q.89Height of a dowla on inspection road of a channel is usually:

(D)
Q.90 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following

(D)
Q.91 Water-shed line is abondoned for aligning an irrigation canal if

(D)
Q.92Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.93When a canal is carried over a natural drainage, the structure provided, is known as

(D)
Q.94 In a Sarda type fall, the rectangular crest, may be used for discharge upto

(C)
Q.95y1 and y2 are depths at start and end of the hydraulic jump. Fundamental momentum equation for a hydraulic jump, is

(B)
Q.96 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(D)
Q.97For smooth entry of water in a canal, the angle between head regulator and water is generally kept

(C)
Q.98 When a canal and a drainage approach each other at the same level, the structure so provided, is

(C)
Q.99A water-logged land is found suitable for cultivation due to

(D)
Q.100 In a canal syphon, the flow is

(B)
Q.101Retrogression of the bed level of a river downstream a weir, occurs due to

(B)
Q.102Attracting groynes are built

(B)
Q.103 The measure to remove water logging of land, is

(C)
Q.104 F.S.L. of a canal at its head with respect to parent channel is kept

(C)
Q.105 The difference in level between the top of a bank and supply level in a canal, is called

(B)
Q.106 If B and d are the bed width and depth of a channel in metres, the combined losses due to evaporation and seepage in cumecs per kilometre length of the channel, is

(A)
Q.107 The length of a meander is the distance along the river between the tangent point of one curve to the tangent point of

(A)
Q.108 Irrigation canals are generally aligned along

(A)
Q.109Borrow pits should preferably be located in

(D)
Q.110The ratio of the maximum height to which a jet inclined through θ rises to its total horizontal span is

(A)
Q.111 When the whole fluid mass rotates either due to fluid pressure or gravity or rotation previously imparted, the motion is known as

(A)
Q.112A nozzle is fitted at the end of a pipe whose length is 320 m and diameter is 10 cm. If the value of f = 0.01, the diameter of the nozzle for the maximum transmission of power through the nozzle is

(B)
Q.113The differential equation dp/ρ + gdz + vdv = 0 for a fluid motion is suggested by

(D)
Q.114 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.115 If H is height of the liquid above the sill, the effect of end contractions, according to Francis formula, is

(A)
Q.116For uniform flow in canals

(D)
Q.117 An open container filled with water is moved vertically downward with a uniform linear acceleration. The pressure at its bottom will be

(C)
Q.118Gradually varying flow differential equation is given as dy/dx = (S0 - Sf) / (1 - Fr^2) where :

(D)
Q.119Back water curve cannot happen in :

(C)
Q.120In critical flow which surface profile does not exists:

(B)
Q.121How many of surface profiles are there in total?

(C)
Q.122Surface profile just downstream of a sluice gate in a mild channel is :

(B)
Q.123 In an inclined position, a venturimeter records

(B)
Q.124 The hydrostatic force acts through

(A)
Q.125 For a most economical rectangular channel, the width of the channel must be

(A)
Q.126 The flow in a channel is said to be non-uniform, if

(D)
Q.127Pick up the incorrect statement from to following regarding triangular notch :

(C)
Q.128If the pressure at the inlet of a pipe is 90 kg/cm2 and pressure drop over the pipe line is 10 kg/cm2, the efficiency of transmission, is

(D)
Q.129 In a short cylindercial external mouthpiece, the venacontracta occurs at a distance from the outlet of orifice equal to

(B)
Q.130The velocity of flow at the critical depth (hc) is called critical velocity (Vc) which is equal to

(A)
Q.131 The flow in open channel is laminar if the Reynold number is

(A)
Q.132Laplace's Equation is given by

(A)
Q.133in streamline tangential velocity is given as

(C)
Q.134A flow net is possible only when flow is

(D)
Q.135 For maximum power transmission through a nozzle, (where hf is the head lost due to friction)

(D)
Q.136 If H is the depth of water retained by a vertical wall, the height of centre of pressure above the bottom is

(C)
Q.137For critical flow, the Froude number is :

(A)
Q.138 Total energy line is

(D)
Q.139The intensity of pressure due to sudden closure of a valve of a pipe in which water flows with velocity v, is directly proportional to :

(A)
Q.140 Centre of buoyancy is

(B)
Q.141An orifice is called a large orifice if water head, is

(D)
Q.142A body of dimensions 1.5 m x 1.0 m x 2 m weighs 3000 kg in water. Its specific gravity is

(A)
Q.143The ratio of the hydraulic radius of a pipe running full to the hydraulic radius of a square section of a channel whose side is equal to the diameter of the pipe, is

(D)
Q.144. The centre of pressure of a vertical plane immersed in a liquid is at

(D)
Q.145A stepped notch is a combination of

(A)
Q.146 The unit of the viscosity is

(C)
Q.147 A floating body attains stable equilibrium if its metacentre is

(B)
Q.148 For the two dimensional flow, the stream function is given by ψ = 2xy. The velocity at a point (3, 4) is

(B)
Q.149 When a liquid rotates at constant angular velocity about a vertical axis of a rigid body, the pressure

(C)
Q.150 Which one of the following statements is true ?

(D)
Q.151 The following is not a laminar flow

(D)
Q.152The best side slope for most economical trapezoidal section, is

(C)
Q.153 When no air is left below the nappe and water stream adheres to the down stream face of the weir, it is known as

(C)
Q.154 Discharge over an ogee weir remains the same as that of

(B)
Q.155 On an inclined plane, centre of pressure is located

(C)
Q.156 Cappoletti weir is a

(A)
Q.157 Molecules of fluids get attracted to other surfaces due to

(C)
Q.158For the most economical trapezoidal section of a channel with regards to discharge, the required condition, is

(D)
Q.159Uniform flow is said to occur when

(D)
Q.160Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.161To avoid an interruption in the flow of a syphon, an air vessel is provided

(B)
Q.162Atmospheric pressure is equal to water column head of

(C)
Q.163Piezometers are used to measure

(D)
Q.164If total head available at the inlet of pipe is H and h1 is the loss of head due to friction in the pipe, the maximum efficiency of transmission of power (ηmax) is

(B)
Q.165 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(C)
Q.166 In Chezy's formula V = C* SQRT(mi)

(D)
Q.167A fluid particle may possess the displacement of

(D)
Q.168The value of momentum correction factor (β) for a laminar flow through a circular pipe, is

(D)
Q.169The equation for the viscosity t = u * dv/dy , is suggested by

(A)
Q.170 In an open tube, free surface of mercury remains

(C)
Q.171Most economical section of a triangular channel for discharge is

(D)
Q.172 Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when friction head loss, is

(B)
Q.173Back water curve is caused if

(B)
Q.174Flow in open channels is turbulent if Reynold number is

(D)
Q.175Flow in pipes is turbulent if Reynold number is

(C)
Q.176The ratio of frictional factor and coefficient of friction used in general equation for a head loss in a pipe, is

(D)
Q.177For maximum horse power of a nozzle, the head supplied must be equal to

(C)
Q.178 An ideal fluid is

(D)
Q.179A non-uniform steady flow is through

(B)
Q.180Manning's formula is used for

(B)
Q.181Specific gravity of liquid:

(D)
Q.182The specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3

(D)
Q.183 Fluids change the volume under external pressure due to

(B)
Q.184The rise of the liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder above the initial level, is

(C)
Q.185 If velocities of fluid particles vary from point to point in magnitude and direction, as well as from instant to instant, the flow is said to be

(C)
Q.186he magnitude of water hammer in a pipe depends upon

(D)
Q.187Atmospheric pressure varies with

(C)
Q.188 If Cv, Cc, Cd and Cr are the hydraulic coefficients of an orifice, then

(A)
Q.189 Dimensions of the dynamic viscosity (μ) are

(A)
Q.190 Which one of the following is applicable to unsteady flow in open channels :

(D)
Q.191An error of 1% in measuring the head of water over the crest of a triangular notch, produces an error in the discharge which is equal to

(D)
Q.192 For the flow of liquid from an open ended tube (or nozzle) leading to the formation of spray of liquid drops, the number generally applied, is

(C)
Q.193in forced vortex the curve formed inside surface of water is

(C)
Q.194in a forced vortex maximum velocity is

(B)
Q.195in a forced vortex the depth of the vacum formed is measured as;

(B)
Q.196In forced vortex the pressure is found by :

(A)
Q.197 A cylindrical vessel 40 cm high is revolved about its vertical axis so that the water touches the bottom when it just spills out. If the radius of the cylinder is SQRT5 cm, the angular velocity of rotation, is

(A)
Q.198 For exerting a pressure of 4.8 kg/cm2, the depth of oil (specific gravity 0.8), should be

(B)
Q.199 From a nozzle exposed to atmosphere, the liquid jet traverses

(D)
Q.200 In fluids, steady flow occurs when

(A)
Q.201 In a centrifugual pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller, is

(B)
Q.202 For most economical rectangular section of a channel, the depth is kept

(D)
Q.203Barometres are used to measure

(C)
Q.204A weir whose length is equal to the width of river is called:

(B)
Q.205When water flows over a rectangular suppressed weir, the negative pressure created beneath the nappe

(A)
Q.206 In order to avoid capillary correction, the minimum diameter of a manometer used for measuring pressure, should be

(B)
Q.207Due to decrease of diameter of the droplet, inside pressure intensity

(A)
Q.208 The velocity of the fluid particle at the centre of the pipe section, is

(B)
Q.209Discharge over a cipolette weir is given by:

(C)
Q.210Discharge over a rectangular weir is given by:

(A)
Q.211Discharge over a triangular weir is given by;

(A)
Q.212 If the forces are due to inertia and gravity, and frictional resistance plays only a minor role, the design of the channels is made by comparing

(C)
Q.213 For critical depth of flow of water in open channels, fc the specific energy must be

(A)
Q.214in water hammer case, pressure head is given by, if the valve close is gradual(t>2L/C):

(A)
Q.215in water hammer case, pressure head is given by, if the valve close is sudden(t< 2L/C):

(A)
Q.216friction factor 'f' =

(A)
Q.217Coefficient of friction 'C' and friction factor 'f' are related as:

(A)
Q.218 If Re is the Renold's number, the coefficient of friction 'C' for laminar flow is

(C)
Q.219 The valve closure is said to be sudden if

(B)
Q.220The main assumption of Bernoulli's equation is :

(D)
Q.221Hydraulic gradient is equal to difference in water surfaces

(C)
Q.222Mach number is the ratio of inertia force to

(D)
Q.223 Cavitation is caused by

(A)
Q.224A steady uniform flow is through

(B)
Q.225 The height of water level in a tank above the centre of a circular hole 2.5 cm in diameter is 50 m. The velocity of water flowing through the hole, is

(C)
Q.226Euler's equation for the motion of liquids assumes that

(A)
Q.227The terminal velocity (v) of a sphere of radius r and specific weight W, which travels vertically downwards in a liquid of viscosity μ and specific weight W, is

(A)
Q.228 Flow in pipes is laminar if Reynold number is

(A)
Q.229 Mercury is generally used in barometers because

(D)
Q.230The velocity distribution of viscous fluid through a circular/pipe is :

(B)
Q.231Total head of a liquid particle in motion is the sum of

(D)
Q.232 In pipe lines, a surge tank is provided

(A)
Q.233 Water displaced by a floating wooden block of density 0.75, 5 m long, 2 m wide and 3 m high, is

(C)
Q.234The continuity equation

(C)
Q.235. If cohesion between the molecules of a fluid is more than adhesion between the fluid and glass, the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be

(A)
Q.236 The discharge through a 100 mm diameter external mouth piece fitted to the side of a large vessel is 0.05948 m3/s. The head over the mouth piece is

(D)
Q.237 If jet of water coming out from a nozzle with a velocity 9.81 m/s, the angle of elevation being 30°, the time to reach the highest point is

(B)
Q.238If S is the length of the crest, H is the height of water source of a weir whose length is L and discharge is Q m3/sec, the velocity of approach Vd is. including approaching velocity head h.

(A)
Q.239Gauge pressure is

(A)
Q.240 Hydraulic ram is a device

(A)
Q.241 For the most economical trapezoidal open channel,

(D)
Q.242 A rectangular channel 6 m wide and 3 m deep and having a bed slope as 1 in 2000 is running full. If Chezy's constant C = 54.8, pick up the correct specification of the channel from the following :

(D)
Q.243Chezzy's equation for flow velocity in open channel is given as:

(A)
Q.244 The ratio of the inertia and gravitational force acting in any flow, ignoring other forces, is called

(B)
Q.245The ratio of the percentagge error in the discharge and percentage error in the measurement of head over a triangular notch, is

(D)
Q.246 Liquids

(B)
Q.247 When two layers of a fluid separated by dy move over the other with a difference of velocity dv, causes a shearing stress OF t = (μ ) du/dy , where μ is known as

(D)
Q.248Reynold number is the ratio of initial force and

(A)
Q.249Euler's equation for motion of liquids, is given by

(A)
Q.250An ideal flow of a liquid obeys

(A)
Q.251Maximum efficiency of transmission of power through a pipe, is

(D)
Q.252A pipe of 0.1 m2 cross sectional area suddenly enlarges to 0.3 m2 cross-sectional area. If the discharge of the pipe is 0.3 m3 /sec, the head loss is

(A)
Q.253 In a circular pipe of length L and diameter d, a viscous liquid is flowing with a velocity v. The loss in head, is

(A)
Q.254The phenomenon occuring in an open channel when a rapidly flowing stream abruptly changes to a slowly flowing stream causing a distinct rise of liquid surface, is

(C)
Q.255When a body is totally or partially immersed in a fluid, it is buoyed up by a force equal to

(B)
Q.256 The diameter (d) of a nozzle fixed at the end of a pipe (diameter D, length L) for maximum energy, is

(A)
Q.257A pipe consisting of several pipes of varying diameters and lengths, may be replaced by an equivalent pipe of diameter D of length

(A)
Q.258Period of oscillation of a floating body having radius of gyration R and Metacentric height M is ;

(A)
Q.259 The horizontal component of the force on a curved surface is equal to

(B)
Q.260Highest dam in Pakistan, is

(A)
Q.261Differential manometers are used to measure

(B)
Q.262Pick up the correct statement regarding Borda's mouth piece running full from the following :

(D)
Q.263A short tube mouthpiece will not run full at its outlet if the head under which the orifice works, is

(A)
Q.264 Discharge Q over a rectangular weir of length L and height H, is dependent on

(A)
Q.265 An independent mass of a fluid does not posses

(C)
Q.266A piezometer opening in pipes measures

(B)
Q.267 The side slope of Cipolletti weir is generally kept

(A)
Q.268Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.269Froud number formula if V is velocity :

(A)
Q.270Reynold number formula if V is velocity, D is dia of pipe and v is kinematic viscosity of fluid :

(A)
Q.271The shear stress distribution in viscous fluid through a circular pipe is

(D)
Q.272The ratio of maximum velocity to average velocity of viscous fluid through a circular pipe is

(D)
Q.273 Critical depth (h) of a channel, is

(B)
Q.274Time of emptying liquid from a hemispherical vessel through an orifice at its bottom, is

(A)
Q.275The moment of inertia of a floating body along its longitudinal axis and the volume of water displaced by it are I and V respectively. The height of the metacentre above centre of buoyancy of the body, is

(C)
Q.276Unit of kinematic viscosity is

(A)
Q.277Most economical section of a circular channel for maximum discharge

(D)
Q.278 A syphon is used

(A)
Q.279The time required to close a valve gradually is (where L is the length of pipe and C = velocity of pressure wave)

(B)
Q.280 If the volume of a liquid weighing 3000 kg is 4 cubic metres, 0.75 is its

(C)
Q.281The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by the intensity of pressure at its centroid, if

(D)
Q.282 If the atmospheric pressure on the surface of an oil tank (sp. gr. 0.8) is 0.1 kg/cm2, the pressure at a depth of 2.5 m, is

(C)
Q.283The maximum vacuum created at the summit of a syphon is

(B)
Q.284The property of steam function ψ is :

(D)
Q.285The thickness of a sharp crested weir is kept less than

(B)
Q.286A pitot tube is used to measure

(C)
Q.287Cantilever retaining walls can safely be used for a height not more than

(D)
Q.288 The width of the flange of a T-beam should be less than

(D)
Q.289An R.C.C. column is treated as long if its slenderness ratio is greater than

(B)
Q.290 The minimum number of main steel bars provided in R.C.C.

(D)
Q.291the pH value of water shall be

(C)
Q.292The maximum area of tension reinforcement in beams shall not exceed

(A)
Q.293A square column carries a load P at the centroid of one of the quarters of the square. If a is the side of the main square, the combined bending stress will be

(C)
Q.294Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.295Pcr = (π^2 * E * I) /4(L^2) is the equation of Euler's crippling load, if

(C)
Q.296 A simply supported beam which carries a uniformly distributed load has two equal overhangs. To have maximum B.M. produced in the beam least possible, the ratio of the length of the overhang to the total length of the beam, is

(A)
Q.297 A rectangular column s carries a load P having eccentricities ex and ev along X and Y axes. The stress at any point (x, y) is

(A)
Q.298 A bar l meter long and having its area of cross-section A, is subjected to a gradually applied tensile load W. The strain energy stored in the bar is

(A)
Q.299 The forces in the members of simple trusses, may be analysed by

(D)
Q.300 At yield point of a test piece, the material

(D)
Q.301 For beams of uniform strength, if depth is constant,

(A)
Q.302 The ratio of lateral strain to axial strain of a homogeneous material, is known

(C)
Q.303 The yield moment of a cross section is defined as the moment that will just produce the yield stress in

(A)
Q.304 The locus of reaction of a two hinged semi-circular arch, is

(A)
Q.305A simply supported beam carries a varying load from zero at one end and w at the other end. If the length of the beam is a, the shear force will be zero at a distance x from least loaded point where x is

(B)
Q.306 The area of the core of a column of cross sectional area A, is

(C)
Q.307 The ratio of the length and diameter of a simply supported uniform circular beam which experiences maximum bending stress equal to tensile stress due to same load at its mid span, is

(B)
Q.308the equation of moment has degree of 2nd, what is the shape of loading?

(B)
Q.309By applying the static equations i.e. ΣH = 0, ΣV = 0 and ΣM = 0, to a determinate structure, we may determine

(D)
Q.310 In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a triangular section, is

(C)
Q.311If Q is load factor, S is shape factor and F is factor of safety in elastic design, the following:

(C)
Q.312. The tangential component of stress on an plane inclined θ° to the direction of the force, may be obtained by multiplying the normal stress by

(D)
Q.313The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress of a circular beam,

(D)
Q.314 If E, N, K and 1/m are modulus of elasticity, modulus of rigidity. Bulk modulus and Poisson ratio of the material, the following relationship holds good

(D)
Q.315A frame containing j joints and m members, has DOI

(A)
Q.316A truss containing j joints and m members, will be a simple truss if

(A)
Q.317A material may fail if

(D)
Q.318 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.319In plastic analysis, the shape factor for rectangular section, is

(B)
Q.320In plastic analysis, the shape factor for a circular section, is

(C)
Q.321 Principal planes are subjected to

(A)
Q.322Total strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is known

(A)
Q.323Stress may be defined as

(C)
Q.324 A material which obeys Hook's law, is subjected to direct stress σ0. At its elastic limit, the following statement is true,

(D)
Q.325 The normal component of a force inclined through θ° is obtained by multiplying the force by

(B)
Q.326 Shear strain energy theory for the failure of a material at elastic limit, is due to

(D)
Q.327The shape factor of standard rolled beam section varies from

(A)
Q.328The assumption in the theory of bending of beams, is :

(D)
Q.329 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(A)
Q.330 Rankine-Golden formula accounts for direct as well as buckling stress and is applicable to

(D)
Q.331During a tensile test on a ductile material

(B)
Q.332At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible bending moments, are

(B)
Q.333 Along the neutral axis of a simply supported beam

(A)
Q.334In a shaft shear stress intensity at a point is not

(A)
Q.335The ratio of the tensile stress developed in the wall of a boiler in the circumferential direction to the tensile stress in the axial direction, is

(C)
Q.336In a three hinged arch, the bending moment will be zero

(D)
Q.337 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.338 A simply supported beam carries two equal concentrated loads W at distances L/3 from either support. The maximum bending moment

(A)
Q.339A joint of a frame is subjected to three tensile force P, Q and R equally inclined to each other. If P is 10 tonnes, the other forces will be

(D)
Q.340A member which does not regain its original shape after removed of load producing deformation is said

(A)
Q.341 A diagram which shows the variations of the axial load for all sections of the span of a beam, is called

(C)
Q.342Along the principal plan subjected to maximum principal stress

(C)
Q.343 If Z and I are the section modulus and moment of inertia of the section, the shear force F and bending moment M at a section are related by

(A)
Q.344 For a cantilever with a uniformly distributed load W over its entire length L, the maximum bending moment is

(A)
Q.345A member is balanced at its end by two inclined members carrying equal forces. For equilibrium the angle between the inclined bars must be

(B)
Q.346 For keeping the stress wholly compressive the load may be applied on a circular column anywhere within a concentric circle of diameter

(C)
Q.347 Reactions at the supports of a structure can be determined by equating the algebraic sum of

(D)
Q.348 The moment diagram for a cantilever whose free end is subjected to a bending moment, will be a

(B)
Q.349Beams of uniform strength are preferred to those of uniform section because these are economical for

(A)
Q.350For a stable frame structure, number of members required, is

(B)
Q.351 For a stable frame structure, number of members required, is

(B)
Q.352 If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by

(B)
Q.353Shear force for a cantilever carrying a uniformly distributed load over its length, is

(A)
Q.354A long vertical member, subjected to an axial compressive load, is called

(A)
Q.355In a continuous bending moment curve the point where it changes sign, is called

(D)
Q.356 A shaft 9 m long is subjected to a torque 30 t-m at a point 3 m distant from either end. The reactive torque at the nearer end will be

(B)
Q.357For a beam of uniform strength keeping its depth constant, the width will vary in proportion to

(A)
Q.358The ratio of the maximum deflection of a cantilever beam with an isolated load at its free end and with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is

(B)
Q.359The section modulus of a rectangular section is proportional to

(A)
Q.360 The property of a material by which it can be drawn to a smaller section, due to tension, is called

(D)
Q.361 The distance between the centres of adjacent rivets in the same row, is called

(A)
Q.362Shear deflection of a cantilever of length L, cross sectional area A and shear modulus G, subjected to w/m u.d.l., is

(A)
Q.363Columns of given length, cross-section and material have different values of buckling loads for different end conditions. The strongest column is one whose

(D)
Q.364As the elastic limit reaches, tensile strain

(A)
Q.365The ratio of the flexural strengths of two square beams one placed with its two sides horizontal and the other placed with one diagonal vertical, diagonal, is

(A)
Q.366Simple bending equation is

(A)
Q.367Every material obeys the Hooke's law within its

(C)
Q.368The maximum compressive stress at the top of a beam is 1600 kg/cm2 and the corresponding tensile stress at its bottom is 400 kg/cm2 . If the depth of the beam is 10 cm, the neutral axis from the top, is

(D)
Q.369 The neutral axis of a beam cross-section must

(A)
Q.370 Pick up the correct assumption of the theory of simple bending

(D)
Q.371 The maximum load to which a fillet joint of length L can be subjected to, is

(A)
Q.372Failure of riveted joints is due to

(D)
Q.373 The under mentioned type is simple strain

(D)
Q.374The following assumption is not true in the theory of pure torsion :

(D)
Q.375 A rectangular log of wood is floating in water with a load of 100 N at its centre. The maximum shear force in the wooden log is

(B)
Q.376 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.377The bending moment is maximum on a section where shearing force

(D)
Q.378The intensity of direct longitudinal stress in the cross-section at any point distant r from the neutral axis, is proportional to

(A)
Q.379 If two tensile forces mutually perpendicular act on a rectangular parallelopiped bar are equal, the resulting elongation of the pipe, is

(A)
Q.380The maximum deflection of

(A)
Q.381 The moment diagram for a cantilever carrying linearly varying load from zero at its free end and to maximum at the fixed end will be a

(D)
Q.382For a beam, if fundamental equations of statics are not sufficient to determine all the reactive forces at the supports, the structure is said to be

(C)
Q.383 Maximum deflection of a

(A)
Q.384 For the same height, the bottom width for no tension,

(A)
Q.385The areas of cross-section of a square beam and a circular beam subjected to equal bending moments, are same.

(B)
Q.386 The moment diagram for a cantilever which is subjected to a uniformly distributed load will be a

(C)
Q.387When two plates butt together and are riveted with two cover plates with two rows of rivets, the joint is known as

(D)
Q.388 The cross sections of the beams of equal length are a circle and a square whose permissible bending stress are same under same maximum bending. The ratio of their flexural weights is,

(A)
Q.389 At either end of a plane frame, maximum number of possible transverse shear forces, are

(A)
Q.390Ties are load carrying members of a frame, which are subjected to

(B)
Q.391If p is the internal pressure in a thin cylinder of diameter d and thickness t, the developed hoop stress, is

(A)
Q.392 A solid circular shaft of diameter d is subjected to a torque T. The maximum shear stress induced in the shaft, is

(B)
Q.393A column is said to be of medium size if its slenderness ratio is between

(B)
Q.394 If S is the shear force at a section of an I-joist, having web depth d and moment of inertia I about its neutral axis, the difference between the maximum and mean shear stresses in the web is,

(A)
Q.395 Hooke's law states that stress and strain are

(A)
Q.396 The phenomenon of slow growth of strain under a steady tensile stress, is called

(B)
Q.397The effect of arching a beam, is

(A)
Q.398The rise of a parabolic arch at quarter points, is equal to

(B)
Q.399The equivalent length of a column fixed at both ends, is

(A)
Q.400The equivalent length of a column fixed at both ends, is

(A)
Q.401 A cast iron T section beam is subjected to pure bending. For maximum compressive stress to be three times the maximum tensile stress, centre of gravity of the section from flange side is

(A)
Q.402The equivalent length of a column fixed at one end and free at the other end, is

(B)
Q.403 If the depth of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre, is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre will be changed by a factor of

(B)
Q.404 The slenderness ratio of a vertical column of square cross- section of 10 cm side and 500 cm long, is

(C)
Q.405 If all the dimensions of a bar are increased in the proportion n : 1, the proportion with which the maximum stress produced in the prismatic bar by its own weight, will increase in the ratio

(B)
Q.406For a beam having fixed ends, the unknown element of the reactions, is

(D)
Q.407The value of Poisson's ratio always remains

(B)
Q.408 If b is the width of a plate joined by diamond riveting of diameter d, the efficiency of the joint is given by

(B)
Q.409 If the length of a cantilever carrying an isolated load at its free end is doubled, the deflection of the free end will increase by

(A)
Q.410 Strain energy of any member may be defined as work done on it

(D)
Q.411If a circular beam of diameter d experiences a longitudinal strain P/E and a lateral strain 2P/mF, the volumetric strain is

(A)
Q.412The stress necessary to initiate yielding, is considerably

(A)
Q.413 The energy stored in a beam of length L subjected to a constant B.M. is

(A)
Q.414 If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and outermost row has only one rivet, the arrangement of the rivets, is called

(C)
Q.415A reinforced concrete beam is assumed to be made of

(B)
Q.416The radius of gyration of a rectangular section is not proportional to

(D)
Q.417 A beam is said to be of uniform strength, if

(C)
Q.418The shear stress at any section of a shaft is maximum

(C)
Q.419When loads are applied proportionately to a frame structure containing its members in one plane, the structure is called

(B)
Q.420In a beam, the neutral plane

(C)
Q.421 The range within which a load can be applied on a rectangular column, to avoid any tensile stress, is

(B)
Q.422A simply supported beam carrying a uniformly distributed load over its whole span, is propped at the centre of the span so that the beam is held to the level of the end supports. The reaction of the prop will be

(C)
Q.423 A shaft turning 150 r.p.m. is subjected to a torque of 150 kgm. Horse power transmitted by the shaft is

(B)
Q.424Influence lines are drawn for structures

(A)
Q.425 The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, is

(C)
Q.426 The deflection of any rectangular beam simply supported, is

(C)
Q.427 If the width of a simply supported beam carrying an isolated load at its centre is doubled, the deflection of the beam at the centre is changed by

(A)
Q.428 If a shaft is rotating N revolutions per minute with an applied torque T kg-m, the horse power being transmitted by the shaft, is

(A)
Q.429The ratio of the moment of inertia of a circular plate and that of a square plate for equal depth, is

(D)
Q.430For a given material Young's modulus is 200 GN/m2 and modulus of rigidity is 80 GN/m2. The value of Poisson's ratio is

(C)
Q.431 For a simply supported beam with a central load, the bending moment is

(D)
Q.432 The maximum twisting moment a shaft can resist, is the product of the permissible shear stress and

(A)
Q.433 A rectangular beam 20 cm wide is subjected to a maximum shearing force of 10, 000 kg, the corresponding maximum shearing stress being 30 kg/cm2. The depth of the beam is

(C)
Q.434A triangular section having base b, height h, is placed with its base horizontal. If the shear stress at a depth y from top is q, the maximum shear stress is

(A)
Q.435The minimum number of rivets for the connection of a gusset plate, is

(B)
Q.436The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly distributed load is always

(B)
Q.437The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, carrying a uniformly distributed load is always

(B)
Q.438 The ratio of the maximum deflections of a beam simply supported at its ends with an isolated central load and that of with a uniformly distributed load over its entire length, is

(C)
Q.439A simply supported beam of span L carries a concentrated load W at its mid-span. The maximum bending moment M is

(B)
Q.440 If the shear force along a section of a beam is zero, the bending moment at the section is

(B)
Q.441 If two forces acting at a joint are not along the straight line, then for the equilibrium of the joint

(B)
Q.442 A beam of length L is pinned at both ends and is subjected to a concentrated bending couple of moment M at its centre. The maximum bending moment in the beam is

(A)
Q.443A uniform girder simply supported at its ends is subjected to a uniformly distributed load over its entire length and is propped at the centre so as to neutralise the deflection. The net B.M. at the centre will be

(C)
Q.444 Pick up the incorrect statement

(D)
Q.445The shape of the bending moment diagram over the length of a beam, having no external load, is always

(A)
Q.446The deflection due to couple M at the free end of a cantilever length L is

(A)
Q.447A three-hinged arch is said to be :

(A)
Q.448A three-hinged arch is said to be :

(A)
Q.449 The ratio of elongations of a conical bar due to its own weight and that of a prismatic bar of the same length, is

(B)
Q.450 In a loaded beam, the point of con-traflexture occurs at a section where

(B)
Q.451The weakest section of a diamond riveting, is the section which passes through

(A)
Q.452The ratio of strengths of solid to hollow shafts, both having outside diameter D and hollow having inside diameter D/2, in torsion, is

(C)
Q.453As compared to uniaxial tension or compression, the strain energy stored in bending is only

(B)
Q.454A rectangular bar of width b and height h is being used as a cantilever. The loading is in a plane parallel to the side b. The section modulus is

(A)
Q.455 If the thickness of a structural member is small as compared to its length and width, it is classified as

(B)
Q.456Effective length of a double lacing is :

(C)
Q.457the angle of single lacing is kept:

(A)
Q.458The slenderness ratio of a single lacing bar for compression members should not exceed

(B)
Q.459A web plate is called unstiffened if the ratio of clear depth to thickness is less than

(C)
Q.460 Design of a riveted joint is based on the assumption:

(B)
Q.461With usual notations of the letters, the shear stress fs at any point of the cross-section is given by

(A)
Q.462 The net area of round bars to resist the tension, is the area of cross section at

(B)
Q.463On steel structures the dead load is the weight of

(D)
Q.464In a grillage footing, the maximum shear force occurs at the

(B)
Q.465 In a built up section carrying a tensile force, the flanges of two channels are turned outward

(D)
Q.466The deflection of beams may be decreased by

(A)
Q.467The ratio of hydrostatic stress to the volumetric strain within the elastic range, is called

(C)
Q.468 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.469The load on a lintel is assumed as uniformly distributed if the height of the masonry above it, is up to a height of

(A)
Q.470 The size of a butt weld is specified by the effective throat thickness which in the case of incomplete penetration, is taken as

(D)
Q.471 In a tension member if one or more than one rivet holes are off the line, the failure of the member depends upon :

(D)
Q.472Water pressure in a 80 cm water main is 10 kg/cm2. The minimum thickness of the metal required for the water main, not to be stressed more than 200 kg/cm2, is

(C)
Q.473 The greatest permissible clear dimension of the web of thickness t in the panel of a plate girder(with intermediate stiffeners) is restricted to

(A)
Q.474When a column is subjected to eccentric load having eccentricity ex, with respect to x-axis and eccentricity ey with respect to y-axis the column is subjected to moment in two directions and the equivalent axial load, is

(A)
Q.475 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.476 Design of a riveted joint, is based on the assumption:

(D)
Q.477 For simply supported beams, the maximum permitted deflection, is

(A)
Q.478The gross section of the web of a beam is defined as

(A)
Q.479 Effective length of a column effectively held in position at both ends and restrained in direction at one end, is

(C)
Q.480The stiff portion of a bearing stiffener is taken equal to

(D)
Q.481Stiffeners are used in a plate girder

(B)
Q.482When the depth of a plate girder is at least n times the depth of vertical leg of the flange angles, the girder is known as deep plate girder, if n is

(D)
Q.483 If d is the distance between the flange angles,

(D)
Q.484 Maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member normally acting as a tie in a roof truss, is

(D)
Q.485The greatest gauge of long rivets should not exceed (where d is the diameter of the holes).

(D)
Q.486When plates are exposed to weather, tacking rivets are provided at a pitch in line not exceeding (where t is the thickness of the outside plate).

(C)
Q.487 If d is the distance between the flange angles of a plate girder, vertical stiffeners are provided at a distance not greater than

(B)
Q.488The equivalent axial load may be defined as the load which produces a stress equal to

(A)
Q.489 Outstanding length of a compression member consisting of a channel, is measured as

(B)
Q.490The main type of butt joints, is a double cover

(D)
Q.491Cold driven rivets range from

(C)
Q.492Factor of safety is the ratio of

(A)
Q.493 Rolled steel angle sections are classified as

(D)
Q.494 Assuming the values of maximum deviation ΔP and ΔE to be 25% of the computed value of P and E respectively, the minimum value of the factor of safety is

(C)
Q.495 A fillet weld whose axis is parallel to the direction of the applied load, is known as

(C)
Q.496Effective sectional area of a compression member is :

(A)
Q.497 Bulb angles are used in

(C)
Q.498Allowable working stress corresponding to the slenderness ratio of double angles placed back to back and connected to one side of a gusset plate, is reduced to

(D)
Q.499The connection of one beam to another beam by means of an angle at the bottom and an angle at the top, is known as

(C)
Q.500 To the calculated area of cover plates of a built-up beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added, is

(B)
Q.501The central deflection of a simply supported steel beam of length L with a concentrated load W at the centre, is

(A)
Q.502 if t is thickness of the plate in cm, the nominal diameter of the rivet, is

(A)
Q.503The effective length of a double angle strut with angles placed back to back and connected to both the sides of a gusset plate, by not less than two rivets, is

(B)
Q.504 Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at one end but neither held in position nor restrained in direction at the other end, is

(D)
Q.505Tacking rivets in compression plates not exposed to the weather, have a pitch not exceeding 300 mm or

(B)
Q.506 If M is the moment due to a couple in a bearing plate whose width is b and allowable bending stress is P, the thickness (t) of the bending plate of the column splice, is

(A)
Q.507 The permissible stress to which a structural member can be subjected to, is known as

(A)
Q.508When the upper column does not provide full bearing area over lower column, the column splice is provided with the following assumption

(D)
Q.509 To keep the intensity of bearing pressure between the column base and concrete, compressive throughout the length of the column base, the ratio of the moment M to axial load P should be

(C)
Q.510A riveted joint many experience

(D)
Q.511Effective length of a column effectively held in position and restrained in direction at both ends, is

(B)
Q.512 Lug angle is

(D)
Q.513 The safe working pressure for a spherical vessel 1.5 m diameter and having 1.5 cm thick wall not to exceed tensile stress 50kg/cm2 , is

(C)
Q.514 The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of compression member carrying dead and superimposed load, is

(B)
Q.515An imaginary line along which rivets are placed, is known as

(D)
Q.516When the length of a tension member is too long

(A)
Q.517In double lacing, the thickness t of flat lacing is

(B)
Q.518 A riveted joint may experience

(D)
Q.519Perforated cover plates are particularly suitable for built up sections consisting of

(C)
Q.520The maximum tensile and compressive bending stress in extreme fibres of rolled I-sections and channels on the effective section, is

(C)
Q.521The ratio of the span L of the filler joists to the depth d from the under side of the joist to the top of the structural concrete, should not exceed

(B)
Q.522The depth of the plate girder is, when M is the moment acting in KNm.

(B)
Q.523The self weight of a plate girder is, if M is the total moment acting on it in KNm.

(A)
Q.524A column splice is used to increase

(A)
Q.525If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders without horizontal stiffeners, are spaced at a distance not less than

(C)
Q.526When a tension member consists of two channel sections, the allowance for rivet hole is made for two holes from

(D)
Q.527Number of rivets required in a joint, is

(C)
Q.528Diameter of a rivet hole is made larger than the diameter of the rivet by

(C)
Q.529Rolled steel beams are designated by Indian Standard series and its

(B)
Q.530The effective length L of a simply supported beam with ends restrained against torsion, and also the ends of compression flange partially restrained against lateral bending, is given by

(B)
Q.531The cross-section of a standard fillet is a triangle whose base angles are

(A)
Q.532 For a rectangular section, the ratio of the maximum and average shear stresses, is

(A)
Q.533 If d is the distance between the flange angles, the vertical stiffeners in plate girders are spaced not greater than

(B)
Q.534The maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a member carrying loads resulting from wind, is

(C)
Q.535Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A)
Q.536 The minimum edge distance of a rivet line connecting two or more plates, is kept equal to 37 mm plus (where t is the thickness in mm of the thinner outside plate).

(B)
Q.537When a tension member is made of four angles with a plate as a web, the allowance for holes is made as

(C)
Q.538The allowable stress in axial tension for rolled I-sections and channels, is taken as

(C)
Q.539 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(D)
Q.540 If the depth of two column sections are equal, then the column splice is provided

(A)
Q.541 Live load

(D)
Q.542 A structural member subjected to compressive stress in a direction parallel to its longitudinal axis, is generally known as

(D)
Q.543The slenderness ratio of a column supported throughout the length with a wall is:

(D)
Q.544Diameter of a bolt hole is usually taken as :

(C)
Q.545The circular column section is not generally used for actual purposes because :

(A)
Q.546The forces acting on the web splices of a plate girder are :

(A)
Q.547The moment curvature relation at a plastic hinge is

(C)
Q.548The distance between center of gravity of compression and center of gravity of tension flanges of a plate girder is:

(A)
Q.549Web crippling generally occurs at the point where:

(B)
Q.550A fillet weld may be termed as

(D)
Q.551 In plastic analysis, the shape factor for circular sections, is

(C)
Q.552If the pitch is 6 cm and rivet value is 4 tonnes, the number of rivets required for a riveted connection carrying an eccentric load of 15 tonnes at a distance of 30 cm from the centre line, is

(D)
Q.553The method of design of steel framework for greatest rigidity and economy in weight, is known as

(B)
Q.554The ratio of shearing stress to shearing strain within elastic limit, is known as

(C)
Q.555 The effective length of a compression member of length L held in position and restrained in direction at one end and effectively restrained in direction but not held in position at the other end, is

(D)
Q.556In rolled steel beams, shear force is mostly resisted by:

(A)
Q.557__are inclined structural members that support stair treads and transfer the loads from the steps to the floor or beams below

(B)
Q.558 a horizontal beam placed along the outer edge of a floor slab is called:

(C)
Q.559In grillage foundation maximum shear force occurs at:

(B)
Q.560Loaded steel columns are supported on:

(B)
Q.561If the depth of the section of an upper column is smaller than the lower column __ are provided.

(D)
Q.562A column splice is use to __ length

(A)
Q.563For eccentrically loaded coumns the bending factor is cros-sectional area to :

(B)
Q.564The equivalent axial load may be define as the load which produces stress equal to Max stress produced by the ;

(C)
Q.565The built up section using four angle section use __

(A)
Q.566The lacing bar resists transverse shear, that is equal to ;

(A)
Q.567For columns maximum value of slenderness ratio is :

(C)
Q.568The most economical section of a column is :

(B)
Q.569The slenderness ratio of a column is maximum when :

(C)
Q.570Slenderness ratio of a compression member is ratio of __ to least radius of gyration.

(A)
Q.571Effective sectional area of a compression member is :

(A)
Q.572F.O.S is the ratio of :

(B)
Q.573If steel member exposed to weather the minimum web thickness is taken as:

(B)
Q.574Net Area to gross area ratio in steel in tension is:

(D)
Q.575Limit state design factor (steel/concrete) for dead loads:

(C)
Q.576Thickness of slab __ with steel grade increasing.

(A)
Q.577Ultimate tensile strength of A36 grade steel is:

(A)
Q.578Minimum yield strength of A36 steel is:

(B)
Q.579Span to depth ratio of A36 steel

(C)
Q.580with percentage increase of carbon in steel, its strength :

(A)
Q.581Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.582Modular co-ordination of construction means proper

(D)
Q.583The Overall in-charge of an organisation at the site responsible for the execution of the works, is

(B)
Q.584 If TL is the latest allowable event occurrence time, total activity slack(s), is equal to

(D)
Q.585Railway projects are treated as

(B)
Q.586 For the execution of a project, a contractor is

(D)
Q.587For the supply of materials for concrete, form work reinforcing and placing of concrete, removal of form work and curing of concrete, number of bar(s) required on bar chart, is

(A)
Q.588 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.589 If t is the duration of an activity, t1 is the latest finish possible moment of its preceding activity and t2 is the earliest start possible moment, the independent float of the activity is

(A)
Q.590 Pre-tender stage requires

(D)
Q.591Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.592 The main disadvantage of line organisation, is

(D)
Q.593The critical activity has

(C)
Q.594 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.595Residential buildings are treated as

(A)
Q.596 PERT is

(D)
Q.597The first stage of a construction, is

(C)
Q.598The difference between total float and free float, is called:

(D)
Q.599Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.600The final selection of a construction site, is done by

(D)
Q.601A goiden rule for the procurement of construction stones, suggests

(B)
Q.602 In CPM analysis,

(D)
Q.603 For completion of a project, the critical path of the network represents

(C)
Q.604PERT analysis is based on

(D)
Q.605The main advantage of line organisation, is :

(D)
Q.606Pick up the correct statement from the following with regards to C.P.M. network analysis of projects

(D)
Q.607While scheduling a project by C.P.M.

(D)
Q.608Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(D)
Q.609An event is indicated on the network by a number enclosed in

(D)
Q.610Power stations are generally treated as

(C)
Q.611 Frequency distribution curves

(D)
Q.612Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(B)
Q.613Which one of the following represents an event ?

(D)
Q.614 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.615Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A)
Q.616 While filling the tender for any work, the contractor considers

(D)
Q.617 The line of sight is kept as high above ground surface as possible to minimzse the error in the observed angles due to

(D)
Q.618 Contour lines of different elevations can unite to form one line, only in the case of

(A)
Q.619A well conditioned triangle has no angle less than

(B)
Q.620Mistakes which may produce a very serious effect upon the final results arise due to

(D)
Q.621The chord of a curve less than peg interval, is known as

(C)
Q.622 If the whole circle bearing of a line is 180°, its reduced bearing is

(C)
Q.623 If the plane table is not horizontal in a direction at right angles to the alidade, the line of sight is parallel to the fiducial edge only for

(A)
Q.624You have to observe an included angle with better accuracy than what is achievable by a vernier, you will prefer the method of

(A)
Q.625The method of reversal

(C)
Q.626The line of collimation method of reduction of levels, does not provide a check on

(A)
Q.627Rankine's deflection angle in minutes is obtained by multiplying the length of the chord by

(A)
Q.628 Perpendicular offset from a tangent to the junction of a transition curve and circular curve is equal to

(D)
Q.629 If a linear traverse follows a sharp curve round a large lake where it is difficult to have long legs, the accuracy of the traverse may be improved by

(C)
Q.630Designation of a curve is made by :

(C)
Q.631 During secular variation of magnetic meridian at different places

(C)
Q.632 To avoid large centering error with very short legs, observations are generally made

(D)
Q.633The ratio of the length of long chord and the tangent length of a circular curve of radius R deflecting through angle Δ, is

(D)
Q.63411. The operation of resection involves the following steps rough orientation of the plane table the three lines form a triangle of error drawing lines back through the three control points select a point in the triangle of error such that each ray is equally rotated either clockwise or anti clockwise the points obtained by three rays is the correct location. The correct sequence is

(A)
Q.635 For indirect ranging, number of ranging rods required, is

(D)
Q.636 Profile levelling is usually done for determining

(C)
Q.637 The chaining on sloping ground is

(A)
Q.638 The chaining on sloping ground is

(A)
Q.639Pick up the correct statement from the following

(D)
Q.640Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(D)
Q.641Bergchrund is a topograhical feature in

(D)
Q.642The ratio of the distances at which a stated length can be distinguished by the telescope and the human eye, respectively, is called

(C)
Q.643Whole circle bearing of a line is preferred to a quadrantal bearing merely because

(B)
Q.644 In a theodolite

(D)
Q.645 Surveys which are carried out to provide a national grid of control for preparation of accurate maps of large areas, are known

(B)
Q.646 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.647Ranging is an operation of

(D)
Q.648 In setting up a plane table at any station

(C)
Q.649 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.650 If the long chord and tangent length of a circular curve of radius R are equal the angle of deflection, is

(C)
Q.651 Horizontal distances obtained tacheometerically are corrected for

(C)
Q.652The staff intercept will be

(B)
Q.653 The instrument which is used in plane tabling for obtaining horizontal and vertical distances directly without resorting to chaining, is known as

(B)
Q.654 In tangential tacheometry, an ordinary level staff is used

(C)
Q.655 The rise and fall method of reduction of levels, provides a check on

(D)
Q.656Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.657 A dumpy level was set up at mid-point between pegs A and B, 80 m apart and the staff readings were 1.32 and 1.56. When the level was set up at a point 10 m from A on BA produced, the staff readings obtained at A and B were 1.11 and 1.39. The correct staff reading from this set up at S should be

(B)
Q.658The imaginary line passing through the intersection of cross hairs and the optical centre of the objective, is known as

(B)
Q.659Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.660 An angles of 45° with a chain line may be set out with

(C)
Q.661An imaginary line lying throughout on the surface of the earth and preserving a constant inclination to the horizontal, is called

(A)
Q.662 The magnetic bearing of a line is 32° and the magnetic declination is 10° 15' W. The true bearing is

(A)
Q.663 If the length of a transition curve to be introduced between a straight and a circular curve of radius 500 m is 90 m, the maximum perpendicular offset for the transition curve, is

(C)
Q.664 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.665 In a precision traverse, included angles are measured by setting the vernier

(D)
Q.666The distances AC and BC are measured from two fixed points A and B whose distance AB is known. The point C is plotted by intersection. This method is generally adopted in

(A)
Q.667Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.668 In horizontal angles, the error due to imperfect levelling of the plate bubble is

(D)
Q.669The slope correction for a 3° slope for a length of 100 m, is

(B)
Q.670 The curvature of the earth's surface, is taken into account only if the extent of survey is more than

(D)
Q.671 The area of any irregular figure of the plotted map is measured with

(A)
Q.672The angle of intersection of a contour and a ridge line, is

(D)
Q.673 The sag of 50 m tape weighing 4 kg under 5 kg tension is roughly

(C)
Q.674 If the length of a chain line along a slope of θ° is l, the required slope correction is

(B)
Q.675 If vertical angles of inclined sights do not exceed 10° and non-verticality of the staff remains within 1°, stadia system of tacheometric observations are made on

(A)
Q.676While surveying a plot of land by plane tabling, the field observations

(D)
Q.677 Diaphragm of a surveying telescope is held inside

(D)
Q.678The boundary of water of a still lake, represents

(C)
Q.679The boundary of water of a still lake, represents

(C)
Q.680 The difference in the lengths of an arc and its subtended chord on the earth surface for a distance of 18.2 km, is only

(C)
Q.681 In chain surveying, perpendiculars to the chain line, are set out by

(C)
Q.682An internal focussing type surveying telescope, may be focussed by the movement of

(C)
Q.683Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.684 The length of a traverse leg may be obtained by multiplying the latitude and

(A)
Q.685If the length of a transition curve to be introduced between a straight and a circular curve of radius 500 m is 90 m, the maximum deflection angle to locate its junction point, is

(C)
Q.686 The first reading from a level station is

(C)
Q.687In a telescope the object glass of focal length 14 cm, is located at 20 cm from the diaphragm. The focussing lens is midway between them when a staff 16.50 m away is focussed. The focal length of the focussing lens, is

(C)
Q.688 If h1 and h2 are the differences in level between ground and the formation levels, m is the slope of the sloping sides. D is the distance between the cross sections then, prismoidal correction for a level section is

(C)
Q.689 Location of contour gradient for a high way is best set out from

(B)
Q.690The included angles of a theodolite traverse, are generally measured

(D)
Q.691 If + 0.8% grade meets - 0.7% grade and the rate of change of grade for 30 m distance is 0.05, the length of the vertical curve will be

(C)
Q.692 The properties of autogenous curve for automobiles are given by

(A)
Q.693The bearing of lines OA and OB are 16° 10' and 332° 18', the value of the included angle BOA is

(D)
Q.694 Stadia techeometry was discovered by James Watt in the year.

(D)
Q.695 Stadia techeometry was discovered by James Watt in the year.

(D)
Q.696Pick up the incorrect statement from the following :

(B)
Q.697Under ordinary conditions, the precision of a theodolite traverse is affected by

(D)
Q.698The correction to be applied to each 30 metre chain length along θ° slope, is

(D)
Q.699 The reduced level of a floor is 99.995 m, the staff reading on the floor is 1.505 m. If the inverted staff reading against the roof is 1.795 m, the floor level below the slab, is

(D)
Q.700 The constant vertical distance between two adjacent contours, is called

(C)
Q.701Staff readings on pegs x and y from X station are 1.755 m and 2.850 m, and from station Y on staff head at Y and X are 0.655 m and 1.560 m. If reduced level of X is 105.5 m, the reduced level of Y is

(B)
Q.702The 10 mm markings on a levelling staff placed at 20 m are separated by

(B)
Q.703Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.704If 50 m point of a 100 m tape is 50 cm off line, and 50 m sections are straight, an error is generated equal to

(C)
Q.705Resolving power of a telescope depends on

(D)
Q.706The theodolites used for making tacheometric observations by optical wedge system, are

(D)
Q.707 Straight, parallel and widely spaced contours represent

(C)
Q.708 In precision theodolite traverse if included angles are read twice and the mean reading accepted using both verniers having a least count of 30". Assuming the instrument to be in perfect adjustment, linear measurements correct to 6 mm per 30 metre tape duly corrected for temperature, slope and sag, the angular error of closure not to exceed (where n is the number of traverse legs)

(B)
Q.709While setting a plane table at a station it was found that the error in centering was 30 cm away from the ray of length 40 m drawn from the station. If the scale of the plan is 1 cm = 2 cm, the displacement of the end of the ray in plan from the true position will be

(B)
Q.710A lens or combination of lenses in which the following defect is completely eliminated is called aplanatic

(B)
Q.711 If the whole circle bearing of a line is 270°, its reduced bearing is

(A)
Q.712 For taking offsets with an optical square on the right hand side of the chain line, it is held

(B)
Q.713A level when set up 25 m from peg A and 50 m from peg B reads 2.847 on a staff held on A and 3.462 on a staff held on B, keeping bubble at its centre while reading. If the reduced levels of A and B are 283.665 m and 284.295 m respectively, the collimation error per 100 m is

(D)
Q.714If the declination of the needle is 10° W

(D)
Q.715The method generally preferred to for contouring an undulating area, is

(C)
Q.716 Number of links per metre length of a chain are

(B)
Q.717 The combined effect of curvature and refraction over a distance L kilometres is

(A)
Q.718 To orient a plane table at a point with two inaccessible points, the method generally adopted, is

(D)
Q.719Tilt of the staff in stadia tacheometry increases the intercept if it is

(C)
Q.720 In case of a direct vernier scale

(C)
Q.721In case of a double line river, contours are

(B)
Q.722 Pick up the correct statement from the following

(D)
Q.723While working on a plane table, the correct rule is :

(B)
Q.724Correction per chain length of 100 links along a slope of α radians, is

(B)
Q.725A transit is oriented by setting its vernier A to read the back azimuth of the preceding line. A back sight on the preceding transit station taken and transit is rotated about its vertical axis. The vernier A reads

(A)
Q.726 The bearing of line AB is 152° 30' and angle ABC measured clockwise is 124° 28'. The bearing of BC is

(B)
Q.727 The representation of general topography of a very flat terrain is possible only

(D)
Q.728 The surface of zero elevation around the earth, which is slightly irregular and curved, is known as

(D)
Q.729Two contour lines, having the same elevation

(D)
Q.730 During levelling if back sight is more than foresight

(B)
Q.731The radius of a simple circular curve is 300 m and length of its specified chord is 30 m. The degree of the curve is

(A)
Q.732Permanent adjustments of a level are

(B)
Q.733Contours of different elevations may cross each other only in the case of

(C)
Q.734 Determining the difference in elevation between two points on the surface of the earth, is known as

(C)
Q.735 In geodetic surveys higher accuracy is achieved, if

(B)
Q.736If Δ is the angle of deflection of a simple curve of radius R, the length of its long chord, is

(B)
Q.737 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.738The magnetic meridian at any point, is the direction indicated by a freely suspended

(C)
Q.739The zero of the graduated circle of a prismatic compass is located at

(B)
Q.740For preparation of a contour plan for a route survey

(C)
Q.741For preparation of a contour plan for a route survey

(C)
Q.742Correct distance obtained by an erroneous chain is:

(A)
Q.743 A traverse deflection angle is

(C)
Q.744The construction of optical square is based, on the principle of optical

(D)
Q.745 The 'fix' of a plane table from three known points, is good, if

(B)
Q.746Diurnal variation of magnetic declination is

(B)
Q.747 A clinometer is used for

(C)
Q.748 Which one of the following procedures for getting accurate orientation is the most distinctive feature of the art of plane tabling

(B)
Q.749 The 'point of curve' of a simple circular curve, is

(D)
Q.750 Cross-staff is used for

(D)
Q.751The tangent to the liquid surface in a level tube, is parallel to the axis of the level tube at

(C)
Q.752The distance between steps for measuring down hill to obtain better accuracy

(C)
Q.753Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.754 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.755 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.756If α is the angle between the polar ray and the tangent at the point of commencement of a lemniscate curve, the equation of the curve, is

(A)
Q.757The whole circle bearing of a line is 290°. Its reduced bearing is

(B)
Q.758 The orthographical projection of a traverse leg upon the reference meridian, is known as

(A)
Q.759 Which one of the following mistakes/errors may be cumulative + or - :

(A)
Q.760Volume of the earth work may be calculated by

(D)
Q.761If a tacheometer is fitted with an analatic lens

(B)
Q.762Pick up the correct statement from the following

(D)
Q.763The main plate of a transit is divided into 1080 equal divisions. 60 divisions of the vernier coincide exactly with 59 divisions of the main plate. The transit can read angles accurate upto:

(D)
Q.764 While rotating the theodolite in the horizontal plane, the bubble of the bubble tube takes up the same position in its tube, it indicates

(A)
Q.765A theodolite is said to be in perfect adjustment if

(D)
Q.766In case of reduction of levels by the height of instrument method,

(D)
Q.767Imaginary line passing through points having equal magnetic declination is termed as

(A)
Q.768The longitudinal section of the surface of bubble tube is

(B)
Q.769 an internal focusing telescope

(D)
Q.770Back bearing of a line is equal to

(A)
Q.771The direction of steepest slope on a contour, is

(C)
Q.772Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.773Removal of parallax, may be achieved by focussing

(C)
Q.774In tacheometrical observations, vertical staff holding is generally preferred to normal staffing, due to

(A)
Q.775 In reciprocal levelling, the error which is not completely eliminated, is due to

(D)
Q.776Prismatic compass is considered more accurate than a surveyor's compass, because

(B)
Q.777In a constant level tube, size of the bubble remains constant because upper wall is

(A)
Q.778 Simpson's rule for calculating areas states that the area enclosed by a curvilinear figure divided into an even number of strips of equal width, is equal to

(B)
Q.779The bubble tube is nearly filled with

(D)
Q.780The ratio of the angles subtended at the eye, by the virtual image and the object, is known as telescope's

(D)
Q.781The curve composed of two arcs of different radii having their centers on the opposite side of the curve, is known

(C)
Q.782 A uniform slope was measured by the method of stepping. If the difference in level between two points is 1.8 m and the slope distance between them is 15 m, the error is approximately equal to

(C)
Q.783For a curve of radius 100 m and normal chord 10 m, the Rankine's deflection angle, is

(A)
Q.784The latitude of a traverse leg is obtained by multiplying its length by

(C)
Q.785 The angle between two plane mirrors of optical square, is

(B)
Q.786If the rate of gain of radial acceleration is 0.3 m per sec3 and full centrifugal ratio is developed. On the curve the ratio of the length of the transition curve of same radius on road and railway, is

(A)
Q.787 In levelling operation

(C)
Q.788 The branch of surveying in which both horizontal and vertical positions of a point, are determined by making instrumental observations, is known

(D)
Q.789If the angular measurements of a traverse are more precise than its linear measurements, balancing of the traverse, is done by

(B)
Q.790Pantagraph is used for

(A)
Q.791An ideal transition curve is

(C)
Q.792Hydrographic surveys deal with the mapping of

(A)
Q.793An ideal vertical curve to join two gradients, is

(D)
Q.794Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(A)
Q.795 The intercept of a staff

(B)
Q.796 Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.797 In chain surveying tie lines are primarily provided

(C)
Q.798The real image of an object formed by the objective, must lie

(A)
Q.799If S is the length of a subchord and R is the radius of simple curve, the angle of deflection between its tangent and sub-chord, in minutes, is equal to

(C)
Q.800or pass

(D)
Q.801 Closed contours of decreasing values towards their centre, represent

(B)
Q.802The accuracy of measurement in chain surveying, does not depend upon

(A)
Q.803One of the Lehmann's rules of plane tabling, is

(A)
Q.804 If R is the radius of the main curve, θ the angle of deflection, S the shift and L the length of the transition curve, then, total tangent length of the curve, is

(A)
Q.805 The 'fix' of a plane table station with three known points, is bad if the plane table station lies

(C)
Q.806Diopter is the power of a lens having a focal length of

(C)
Q.807 If a 30 m chain diverges through a perpendicular distance d from its correct alignment, the error in length, is

(A)
Q.808The limiting length of an offset does not depend upon

(D)
Q.809 One of the tacheometric constants is additive, the other constant, is

(C)
Q.810Two concave lenses of 60 cm focal length are cemented on either side of a convex lens of 15 cm focal length. The focal length of the combination is

(C)
Q.811 In chain surveying field work is limited to

(B)
Q.812 While viewing through a level telescope and moving the eye slightly, a relative movement occurs between the image of the levelling staff and the cross hairs. The instrument is

(A)
Q.813Pick up the method of surveying in which field observations and plotting proceed simultaneously from the following

(A)
Q.814Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.815If L is the perimeter of a closed traverse, ΔD is the closing error in departure, the correction for the departure of a traverse side of length l, according to Bowditch rule, is

(A)
Q.816In quadrantal bearing system, back bearing of a line may be obtained from its forward bearing, by

(C)
Q.817If θ is the slope of the ground and l is the measured distance, the correction is

(A)
Q.818Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.819True meridians are generally preferred to magnetic meridians because

(B)
Q.820 A bearing of a line is also known as

(C)
Q.821Accuracy of 'fix' by two point problem, is

(C)
Q.822The bearings of the lines AB and BC are 146° 30' and 68° 30'. The included angle ABC is

(A)
Q.823The probable error of the adjusted bearing at the middle is

(A)
Q.824Offsets are measured with an accuracy of 1 in 40. If the point on the paper from both sources of error (due to angular and measurement errors) is not to exceed 0.05 cm on a scale of 1 cm = 20 m, the maximum length of offset should be limited to

(C)
Q.825The difference of level between a point below the plane of sight and one above, is the sum of two staff readings and an error would be produced equal to

(B)
Q.826 The most reliable method of plotting a theodolite traverse, is

(B)
Q.827If the radius of a simple curve is R, the length of the chord for calculating offsets by the method of chords produced, should not exceed.

(C)
Q.828For the construction of highway (or railway)

(C)
Q.829The slope correction for a length of 30 m along a gradient of 1 in 20, is

(A)
Q.830For a closed traverse the omitted measurements may be calculated when:

(D)
Q.831For a closed traverse the omitted measurements may be calculated

(D)
Q.832Pick up the correct statement from the following :

(D)
Q.833Keeping the instrument height as 1.5 m, length of staff 4 m, the slope of the ground as 1 in 10, the sight on the down-slope, must be less than

(D)
Q.834ABCD is a regular parallelogram plot of land whose angle BAD is 60°. If the bearing of the line AB is 30°, the bearing of CD, is

(C)
Q.835 For true difference in elevations between two points A and B, the level must be set up

(B)
Q.836The sensitiveness of a level tube decreases if

(D)
Q.837The instrument attached to the wheel of a vehicle in order to measure the distance travelled, is called

(C)
Q.838An invar tape is generally used for accurate measurement of distance because it possesses__ coefficient of thermal expansion,.

(B)
Q.839A metallic tape is made of an alloy of nickel and steel.

(B)
Q.840The method of measuring distance by pacing is chiefly used in

(A)
Q.841An average length of a pace is

(B)
Q.842If x is the smallest division on the main scale and n are the number of divisions on the vernier, then the least count of the vernier is

(D)
Q.843 20. With a simple vernier, readings can be taken in one direction only.

(A)
Q.844In a retrograde vernier, the smallest division of a vernier is__ the smallest division of its primary scale.

(A)
Q.845In a direct vernier, the smallest division of a vernier is___ the smallest division of its primary sale

(B)
Q.846A scale used for measuring fractional parts of the smallest division of the main scale is known as vernier scale.

(A)
Q.847A scale which has a common representative fraction, but read in different measures, is called a

(D)
Q.848A diagonal scale is used to read

(C)
Q.849A plain scale is used to read

(B)
Q.850The representative fraction 1 / 2500 means that the scale is

(C)
Q.851When 1 cm on a map represents 10 m on the ground, the representative fraction of the scale is

(C)
Q.852The representative fraction of the scale is the ratio of the distance on the map or drawing to the corresponding distance on the ground

(A)
Q.853 The working from whole to the part is done in surveying in order to ensure that

(D)
Q.854The fundamental principle of surveying is to work from the

(A)
Q.855The surveying used to determine additional details such as boundaries of fields, is called

(C)
Q.856The reconnaissance surveying is carried out to determine the artificial features such as roads, railways, canals, buildings etc.

(B)
Q.857In order to determine the natural features such as valleys, rivers, lakes etc., the surveying preferred is

(D)
Q.858The difference between the sum of the angles of a spherical triangle on the earth's surface and the angles of the corresponding plane triangle for every 195.5 km2 of area is only

(A)
Q.859The difference in length between the arc and the subtended chord on the surface of the earth for a distance of 18.2 km is only

(A)
Q.860The curvature of the earth is taken into consideration if the limit of survey is

(D)
Q.861In geodetic surveying, the curvature of the earth is taken into consideration.

(A)
Q.862In plane surveying,

(B)
Q.863 Particles of 0.002 mm size are that of

(A)
Q.864Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.865The main object of compaction of concrete, is:

(D)
Q.866 An aggregate is known as cyclopean aggregate if its size is more than

(D)
Q.867The size of fine aggregates does not exceed

(D)
Q.868 If a grading curve is horizontal between the portions of 20 mm. Sieve and 4.75 mm Sieve, the graded aggregates do not contain

(D)
Q.869In the method of voids for determination of the quantity of cement paste, it is assumed that

(D)
Q.870 'Ware house pack' of cement means

(D)
Q.871Le-Chatelier's apparatus is used for testing

(A)
Q.872 The concrete mix which causes difficulty in obtaining a smooth finish, possess

(A)
Q.873 For a concrete mix 1:3:6 and water cement ratio 0.6 both by weight, the quantity of water required per bag, is

(A)
Q.874 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.875Horizontal construction joints in concrete walls are generally provided at

(D)
Q.876 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.877The bulk density of aggregates, depends upon

(D)
Q.878 The specifications of a cement bag for storage, are

(D)
Q.879The minimum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of

(D)
Q.880 For given workability the grading requiring the least amount of water is one that gives

(B)
Q.881 the full strength of concrete after

(D)
Q.882An excess of flaky particles in concrete aggregates

(D)
Q.883The surface where two successive placements of concrete meet, is known as

(C)
Q.884 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(A)
Q.885 Curing of pavements, floors, roofs and slabs, is done by

(D)
Q.886Bulking of sand is

(D)
Q.887On a grading curve, the gap grading is represented by

(A)
Q.888 Di-calcium silicate (C2S)

(B)
Q.889 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.890 The impurity of mixing water which affects the setting time and strength of concrete, is

(A)
Q.891Sand generally contains salt if it is obtained from:

(C)
Q.892 The maximum percentage of chemical ingredient of cement is that of

(D)
Q.893The aggregate impact value of the aggregate used in

(D)
Q.894 Placing of concrete should preferably be done at a temperature of

(B)
Q.895 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.896A concrete using an air entrained cement

(D)
Q.897 The cement becomes useless if its absorbed moisture content exceeds

(D)
Q.898 The lower water cement ratio in concrete, introduces

(D)
Q.899 Sands of zone I are

(C)
Q.900earth moist

(C)
Q.901 Concrete is unsuitable for compaction by a vibrator if it is

(C)
Q.902An ideal ware house, is provided

(D)
Q.903 For the construction of the retaining structures, the type of concrete mix to be used, is

(D)
Q.904 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(D)
Q.905Vicat apparatus is used for

(D)
Q.906 For the construction of thin R.C.C. structures, the type of cement to be avoided, is

(D)
Q.907 The 28 days cube strength of mass concrete using aggregates of maximum size 5 cm for gravity dams should be

(D)
Q.908a good aggregate should be

(D)
Q.909For preparing ordinary concrete, the quantity of water used, is

(D)
Q.910 If the average compressive strength is 4000 kg/cm2 and standard deviation is 500, the co-efficient of variation is

(A)
Q.911 In slump test, each layer of concrete is compacted by a steel rod 60 cm long and of 16 mm diameter for

(C)
Q.912 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(D)
Q.913The entrained air in concrete

(A)
Q.914If 50 kg of fine aggregates and 100 kg of coarse aggregates are mixed in a concrete whose water cement ratio is 0.6, the weight of water required for harsh mix, is

(C)
Q.915Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.916 The shuttering of a hall measuring 4 m x 5 m, can be removed after

(A)
Q.917 The dimensions of a 35 litre forma for measuring aggregates by volume, are :

(C)
Q.918 Setting time of cement increases by adding

(D)
Q.919Higher workability of concrete is required if the structure is

(C)
Q.920 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(D)
Q.921 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.922 Cement used for normal concrete construction, is obtained by burning a mixture of

(D)
Q.923 Strength of concrete with passage of time

(C)
Q.924 A concrete having a slump of 6.5 cm, is said to be

(B)
Q.925 If the effective plan area of a warehouse is 54 sq. m, and maximum height of piles permitted is 270 cm, the number of cement bags to be stored, is

(C)
Q.926 For a good concrete

(D)
Q.927Water cement ratio is generally expressed in volume of water required per

(B)
Q.928 If the various concrete ingredients i.e. cement, sand and aggregates are in the ratio of 1:3:6, the grade of concrete, is

(D)
Q.929To prevent segregation, the maximum height for placing concrete, is

(B)
Q.930 A flaky aggregate is said to be elongated if its length is

(D)
Q.931 Ordinary Portland cement is manufactured from

(C)
Q.932Sand requiring a high water cement ratio, belongs to

(D)
Q.933. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following. While performing preliminary test on concrete

(D)
Q.934The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land Cement should not take more than

(C)
Q.935The process of mixing, transporting, placing and compacting concrete using Ordinary Port land Cement should not take more than

(C)
Q.936The strength and quality of concrete, depend upon:

(D)
Q.937 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.938 If the slump of a concrete mix is 60 mm, its workability is

(C)
Q.939Workability improved by adding

(D)
Q.940 Expansion joints are provided if the length of concrete structures exceeds

(C)
Q.941An aggregate which passes through 25 mm I.S. sieve and is retained on 20 mm sieve, is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than

(B)
Q.942 Pozzolanic properties exist in

(D)
Q.943 If fineness modulus of sand is 2.5, it is graded as

(A)
Q.944 Log Angles machine is used to test the aggregate for

(B)
Q.945 Non-uniform compaction may cause the concrete

(D)
Q.946 If aggregates completely pass through a sieve of size 75 mm and are retained on a sieve of size 60 mm, the particular aggregate will be flaky if its minimum dimension is less than

(C)
Q.947 Concrete gains strength due to

(C)
Q.948 To hydrate 500kg of cement full water needed, is

(B)
Q.949 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.950 The commercial name of white and coloured cement is

(D)
Q.951 The aggregate containing moisture in pores and having its suface dry, is known as

(D)
Q.952 For preparing a test-specimen, it is necessary

(D)
Q.953 For the construction of cement con-certe dams, the maximum permissible size of the aggregates, is

(A)
Q.954The type of aggregates of same nominal size, which contain less voids when compacted, are

(C)
Q.955For the construction of R.C.C. slabs, columns, beams, walls, etc. the grade of concrete mix used, is

(C)
Q.956The type of aggregates not suitable for high strength concrete and for pavements subjected to tension, is

(D)
Q.957 The void ratio of

(D)
Q.958 The operation of removing humps and hollows of uniform concrete surface, is known as

(D)
Q.959 For concreting tunnel linings, transportation of concrete is done by

(B)
Q.960 Pick up the incorrect statemnt from the following. For performing compressive strength test of cement

(B)
Q.961While designing an air entrained concrete

(D)
Q.962 Workability of concrete mix with low water cement ratio is determined by

(A)
Q.963 The top diameter, bottom diameter and the height of a slump mould are :

(A)
Q.964 An ordinary Portland cement when tested for its fineness, should not leave any residue on sieve No. 9, more than

(D)
Q.965Concrete containing

(A)
Q.966 To obtain a very high strength concrete, use very fine grained

(C)
Q.967 The most useless aggregate is one whose surface texture is

(D)
Q.968Allowable shear strength of concrete, depends upon

(B)
Q.969 The grade of concrete M 150 means that compressive strength of a 15 cm cube after 28 days, is

(D)
Q.970 The bulk density of aggregates, is generally expressed as

(B)
Q.971 High temperature

(B)
Q.972 The condition not applicable to water cement ratio law, is

(B)
Q.973Joints in concrete structures, are provided

(D)
Q.974 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.975Pick up the incorrect statement applicable to the field test of good cement.

(D)
Q.976Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.977 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.978 The cement whose strength is a little lower than the ordinary cement during the first three months but attains afterwards the same strength, is known as

(C)
Q.979The factor which affects workability, is

(D)
Q.980Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.981Saw dust can be rendered chemically inert by boiling it in water containing

(C)
Q.982 Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(C)
Q.983According to Water-Cement Ratio Law, the strength of workable plastic concrete

(D)
Q.984 Separation of water or water sand cement from a freshly concrete, is known

(A)
Q.985The ratio of various ingredients (cement, sand, aggregates) in concrete of grade M 200, is

(A)
Q.986The shrinkage of concrete

(D)
Q.987The diameter of the Vicat plunger is 10 mm and its length varies from

(A)
Q.988 If the engineer-in-charge approves, the 10 cm cubes may be used for the work test of concrete provided maximum nominal size of aggregate, does not exceed

(C)
Q.989 Efflorescence in cement is caused due to an excess of

(D)
Q.990 Water cement ratio is

(D)
Q.991 Water cement ratio is

(D)
Q.992 Pozzolana cement is used with confidence for construction of

(D)
Q.993Slump test of concrete is a measure of its

(D)
Q.994 Permissible compressive strength of M 150 concrete grade is

(D)
Q.995Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(C)
Q.996The datum temperature for maturity by Plowman, is

(B)
Q.997Addition of pozzolana to cement

(D)
Q.998 Segregation is responsible for

(D)
Q.999 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1000If the depth of moist sand in a cylinder is 15 cm and the depth of the sand when fully inundated with water is 12 cm, the bulking of the moist sand, is

(B)
Q.1001 The light weight aggregates are obtained from

(D)
Q.1002 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1003The compaction of concrete, improves

(D)
Q.1004A construction joint is provided where

(D)
Q.1005The maximum thickness of concrete floor of a cement warehouse, is

(B)
Q.1006For an ordinary Portland cement

(D)
Q.1007 The internal dimensions of a ware house are 15 m x 5.6 m, and the maximum height of piles is 2.70 m, the maximum number of bags to be stored in two piles, are

(B)
Q.1008The final operation of finishing floors, is known as

(B)
Q.1009The percentage of the aggregate of F.M. 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of F.M. 6.8 for obtaining the aggregates of F.M. 5.4, is

(C)
Q.1010Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1011An aggregate is said to be flaky, if its least dimension is less than

(C)
Q.1012 Specified compressive strengh of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of

(D)
Q.1013 Specified compressive strengh of concrete is obtained from cube tests at the end of

(D)
Q.1014 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1015Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1016For compacting plain concrete road surface of thickness less than 20 cm, we use

(C)
Q.1017Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1018Workability of concrete for a given water content is good if the aggregates, are

(C)
Q.1019Proper batching ensures

(D)
Q.1020 The process of hardening the concrete by keeping its surface moist is known

(C)
Q.1021 For batching 1:3:6 concrete mix by volume, the ingredients required per bag of 50 kg cement, are:

(C)
Q.1022 Percentage of pozzolanic material containing clay upto 80% used for the manufacture of pozzolana cement, is

(A)
Q.1023For construction of structures in sea water, the cement generally preferred to, is

(D)
Q.1024full strength of concrete after

(D)
Q.1025Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

(C)
Q.1026Water required per bag of cement, is

(B)
Q.1027The production of impermeable concrete:

(D)
Q.1028You are asked to construct a massive dam, the type of cement you will use, is

(A)
Q.1029 Pick up the correct statement from the following

(D)
Q.1030Batching error means inaccuracy in the quantity of

(D)
Q.1031 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1032 Hardening of cement occurs at

(A)
Q.1033Addition of pozzolana to cement causes

(D)
Q.1034 Too wet concrete may cause

(D)
Q.1035 Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes

(D)
Q.1036 Addition of pozzolana to ordinary port land cement, causes

(D)
Q.1037Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1038Sieve Nos. 10 mm and 4.75 mm are geneally used for grading of

(C)
Q.1039Ordinary concrete is not used for concrete grade

(B)
Q.1040 Shrinkage in concrete can be reduced by using

(D)
Q.1041Grading of sand causes great variation in

(D)
Q.1042the expansion joints

(D)
Q.1043Separation of coarse aggregates from mortar during transportation, is known

(C)
Q.1044 Construction joints are generally provided in concrete

(D)
Q.1045For road pavements, the cement generally used, is

(D)
Q.1046 Internal friction between the ingredients of concrete, is decreased by using

(B)
Q.1047The rock which is not calcareous, is :

(D)
Q.1048 Workability of concrete is measured by

(A)
Q.1049 M 150 grade of concrete approximates

(D)
Q.1050 Vicat's apparatus is used for

(C)
Q.1051Concrete mainly consists of

(C)
Q.1052 Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1053Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1054 The high strength of rapid hardening cement at early stage, is due to its

(C)
Q.1055Slump test is done for

(B)
Q.1056Transport of concrete by pumps, is done for a distance of

(D)
Q.1057Pick up the correct proportions of chemical ingredients of cement

(A)
Q.1058The preliminary test is repeated if the difference of compressive strength of three test specimens, exceeds

(D)
Q.1059Pick up the correct statement from the following:

(D)
Q.1060The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of proportion, is known

(B)
Q.1061The process of proper and accurate measurement of concrete ingredients for uniformity of proportion, is known

(B)
Q.1062For the construction of cement concrete floor, the maximum permissible size of aggregate, is

(C)
Q.1063Curing a concrete for long period ensures better

(D)
Q.1064 If 20 kg of coarse aggregate is sieved through 80 mm, 40 mm, 20 mm, 10 mm, 4.75 mm, 2.36 mm, 1.18 mm, 600 micron, 300 micron and 150 micron standard sieves and the weights retained are 0 kg, 2 kg, 8 kg, 6 kg, 4 kg respectively, the fineness modulus of the aggregate, is

(C)
Q.1065Workability improved by adding

(D)
Q.1066Workability improved by adding

(D)
Q.1067To ensure constant moisture content in aggregates

(D)
Q.1068The ratio of the length to breadth of a wooden float, is

(C)
Q.1069The increased cohesiveness of concrete, makes it

(B)
Q.1070The following proportion of the ingredients of concrete mix, is not in conformation to arbitrary method of proportioning

(B)
Q.1071An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least dimension is less than

(C)
Q.1072Construction joints are provided

(D)
Q.1073While compacting the concrete by a mechanical vibrator, the slump should not exceed

(D)
Q.1074Curing

(D)
Q.1075 The bulk density of aggregates does not depend upon :

(A)
Q.1076Proper proportioning of concrete, ensures

(D)
Q.1077The maximum amount of dust which may be permitted in aggregates is

(D)
Q.1078Permissible compressive strength of M 300 concrete grade is

(B)
Q.1079 To obtain cement dry powder, lime stones and shales or their slurry, is burnt in a rotary kiln at a temperature between

(D)
Q.1080.Hydration of cement is due to chemical action of water with

(A)
Q.1081After casting, an ordinary cement concrete on drying

(B)
Q.1082The risk of segregation is more for

(A)
Q.1083 The mixture of different ingredients of cement, is burnt at

(C)
Q.1084For ensuring quality of concrete, use

(B)
Q.1085M10 grade of concrete approximates

(A)
Q.1086If the compaction factor is 0.95, the workability of concrete is

(C)
Q.1087Under normal conditions using an ordinary cement, the period of removal of the form work, is

(D)
Q.1088For quality control of Portland cement, the test essentially done is

(D)